Message #6795

[Zainab_M]

Does it mean that if the husband pronounces talaq twice, then that's somewhat same as separation, until he pronounces divorce the third time to make it final (if he decides to do that)? 

Yes, after two pronouncements it's separation for reconsidering the matter for 4 months as clarified in Verse 2:226.  I would add that the Glorious Quran is very cautious in matters of divorce.  The three pronounciations of talaq have to be spaced over a period of 4 months to give the wife & husband time for reconciliation by thinking and discussing the matter with family, friends and lawyers.  Also, this time is essential to determine if the wife is pregnant or not.  Unfortunately, the Shariah is misusing this law.  In many Muslim countries, against the dictates of the Quran, men are being allowed to divorce their wives by pronouncing talaq thrice in one breath.  Because of this violation of the Quranic law, many homes & families have been destroyed.  This violatory practice of immediate triple divorce is particularly widespread among Sunnis with legal validity by completely ignoring the Quran.  In modern times, some so-called Muslim men have sunk so low that they even use the immediate triple divorce practice through phone, email or cell phone text messaging.  For this reason, some jurists call it Talaq-e-Bidah (innovative divorce).  Such a system is a gross misinterpretation of the Noble Quran.

Also, if the woman wants the divorce, does she also have to pronounce it thrice?

Well, no.  The woman doesn't have to make three pronouncements but I would presume that the rest of the procedure is the same, that is first separation of 4 months to reconsider the matter.   If she then decides not to return to her husband, she is free to make her decision and ask for divorce.  Then, after divorce, she must wait for 3 months before she can remarry.  If she's pregnant, she must wait till she's given birth.